Consensus is that the Authorized translation of the first part of this verse, "A man that hath friends must shew himself friendly," is off. Way off. So what were the translators thinking when they wrote this?
So what's going on here? Better question: What do the Jews say it means?
I'm not sure how Aramaic would be useful as the Tanakh was written in Hebrew. I don't know biblical Hebrew, but I can get back as far as the Latin Vulgate. Interestingly, there is no Greek (Septuagint) translation of this particular verse.
So here's what the Latin says: vir amicalis ad societatem magis amicus erit quam frater.
"A man who is friendly to community will be a better friend than a brother."
One key point seems to be the phrase "ad societatem," which only occurs twice else in Latin literature. Once by the historian Sallust in the context of an alliance: "he sought ambassadors of the Allobroges in order to impel them into an alliance of war" (legatos Allobrogum requirat eosque ... inpellat ad societatem belli). The other is Cicero in a more general context as he outlines the Stoic philosophy in preparation for arguing against it: "we are born well-disposed to social life with other humans and towards the community and fellowship of human kind" (natosque esse ad congregationem hominum et ad societatem communitatemque generis humani).
Here's an online discussion of the Hebrew by some apparently knowledgeable amateurs, but I have no way of evaluating how good it is: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/663/synthesizing-d...
Interestingly, they point to a pun in the Hebrew between two verbs--to come to ruin, and to behave in a friendly manner. This leads to a conclusion that the JPS translation is best: "There are friends that one hath to his own hurt; but there is a friend that sticketh closer than a brother." But another participant thinks it's better as "A man with friends comes to harm...".
Not nothing and WAY better than four words not contributing to anything but your own sniping. You were doing fine with your own responses, what was the point of this one?
Thank you for your kind words, Liam.
Even the Jews acknowledge that Esther wasn't originally in Hebrew. I'm not sure about Proverbs.
What's the source of the Cicero? I'm too lazy to google or pull out a reference book.
The Cicero is De Finibus 4.2.4. Proverbs certainly was originally composed in Hebrew.